Latest Sample Placement Paper Of Wipro For Year-2009-10 (Mathematic, English)

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is sitting between A and G. F is second to the right of G and E is second to the right of F. C is not an immediate neighbor of G.

1. Who is to the immediate left of E?
1) A
2) C
3) F
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is not correct?
1) G is second to the right of A
2) B is second to the right of D
3) F is second to the left of E
4) E is second to the left of D
5) All are correct

3. In which of the following groups the third members is sitting between the first and the second members?
1) EAD
2) DGB
3) GFB
4) DAG
5) None of these

4. Who is sitting between C and A?
1) E
2) D
3) F
4) G
5) None of these

5. Who is to the immediate right of G?
1) F
2) D
3) B
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

6. A student scores 55% marks in 8 papers of 100 marks each. He scores 15% of his total marks in English. How much does he score in English?
1) 55
2) 66
3) 77
4) 44
5) None of these

7. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following number series?
5690 5121 4552 3983 3414 2845?
1) 2276
2) 2516
3) 2746
4) 2356
5) None of these

8. Car 'X' covers a distance of 385 kms in 7 hours and car 'Y' covers a distance of 715 kms in 13 hrs. What is the difference in the speed of the two cars?
1) 2kms/hr
2) 1km/hr
3) 3kms/hr
4) 5kms/hr
5) None of these

9. The ratio of the present ages of Sunita and vinita is 4:5. Six years hence the ratio of their ages will be 14:17. What will be the ratio of their ages 12 years hence?
1) 15:19
2) 13:15
3) 16:19
4) 17:19
5) None of these

10. Find out the greatest possible number for which 30% of that number is less than 100?
1) 331
2) 335
3) 325
4) 333
5) 328


Directions (Q. 11-25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The health of nations can be measured by the food security and well-being of their people. An innovative programme in India shows how botanic gardens can contribute to that well-being by educating people about the uses of local biodiversity, particularly for healthcare and income-generation.
     In 1994, the Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute in Kerala launched two outreach programmes - “Herbs for All and Health for All” and “Plants for All and Wealth for All”. The programmes teach people how to take care of their food, nutrition, hygiene and health by making the best use of the plant resources around them.
     The Research Institute selected four rural villages as partners. A team of scientists, including botanists, experts in Ayurveda (a holistic system of healing, which evolved among the sages of India some 3000-5000 years ago), and sociologists visited the villages and met with local leaders to explain the programmes. The villages selected representatives to attend a two-day workshop in Kerala devoted to agro biodiversity and conservation.
     The workshop particularly highlighted the role of home gardens as a tool for the community management of genetic resources. The students visited a model home garden at the institute, composed of many different medicinal and ornamental plants and vegetables. They were encouraged to take samples from the home garden with them when they returned to their villages.
     The next step was intensive training on primary health care and the conservation and sustainable use of plant diversity. The trainees, a core group of 10 people selected from the workshop participants by each village, learned how to treat common ailments with plants conserved at the Botanic Garden.
     At the end of the training, they were furnished with seedlings of medicinal plants and lesser known fruits and vegetables, as well as practical information on cultivating them back home.
     Returning to their villages, the trainees each adopted 20 local families to educate in the preparation and use of plant-based herbal medicines, stressing the need for self-reliance in the primary health care of family members.
The programme has since been extended to other villages and the Botanic Garden and Research Institute has widened its reach even further by producing and distributing brochures, fliers and books in the local language on primary health care, commonly cultivated medicinal and aromatic plants and wild edible fruits and vegetables.
     The Kerala programme has been recognized by the World Bank and international organizations as an inspiration for projects in developing countries.

11. A nation's health cannot be considered sound when it is unable to provide
1) its people with proper employment.
2) its people with proper infrastructure for career growth.
3) its populace with the basic necessities of life.
4) its people with a secure environment and gardens.
5) its subject with proper education.

12. Botanic gardens play a virtual role in making people lead a good life by
1) focussing on the positive aspects of our environment.
2) promoting agri-business on a large scale.
3) making them aware about sound health and happy life.
4) adopting various anti-pollution measures.
5) producing several developmental models.

13. What is the objective of the programmes “Herbs for All and Health for All” and “Plants for All and Wealth for All”?
1) to raise the income level of people
2) to focus on the attainment of universal literacy
3) to make people aware about their surroundings
4) to make people aware of their rights
5) None of these

14. What is the role of home garden as mentioned in the passage?
1) It can preserve the origins of various plants.
2) It can help in reproducing plants which have become extinct.
3) It can help in better understanding of our bio-diversity.
4) It can store herbal plants.
5) None of these

15. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?
1) The evolution of Ayurveda dates back to 3000-5000 B.C.
2) The Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute in Kerala was founded in
the year 1994.
3) The two-day workshop was held in the villages of Kerala.
4) The Kerala programme has been funded by the World Bank.
5) None of these

16. What seems to be the prime reason behind the cultivation of herbal plants, wild edible fruits and vegetables?
1) to research in the field of botany
2) to restore our ancient practice of ayurveda
3) to promote primary healthcare
4) to return to nature
5) None of these

17. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage?
1)The Kerala programme is running successfully in various developing
countries.
2) The Kerala programme initially focussed on the rural areas.
3) A nation is healthy if it feeds well its entire population.
4) Common ailments can be treated by using herbal plants.
5) None of these

18. What is unique about the treatment of Ayurveda as mentioned in the passage?
1) It takes years to cure a disease.
2) It is the oldest system of healing.
3) It treats the whole person rather than just the symptoms of a disease.
4) It is based on cults.
5) None of these

19. What is the central theme of this passage?
1) Ecology and science in our life
2) Environment and pollution
3) Health of our nation
4) Botanic gardens and their utilities
5) Biodiversity's links to health

Directions (Q. 20-22): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

20. SUSTAINABLE
1) conservative
2) striking
3) effective
4) maintained
5) justified

21. AILMENTS
1) problems
2) disorders
3) imbalance
4) syndrome
5) illness

22. AROMATIC
1) herbal
2) mystical
3) fragrant
4) distinct
5) extinct

Directions (Q.23-25): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

23. OUTREACH
1) farflung
2) farthest
3) selected
4) distant
5) limited

24. CONSERVATION
1) deterioration
2) peril
3) recrimination
4) degradation
5) depreciation

25. FURNISHED
1) deprived
2) refused
3) altered
4) diminished
5) halted

ANSWERS:   1. (2) 2. (5)   3. (3)   4. (1)   5. (3)   6. (2)   7. (1)   8. (5)   9. (3)   10. (4)   11. (3)   12. (1)    13. (5)  14. (1) 15. (5)    16. (3)    17. (1)   18. (3)    19. (5)   20. (4)    21. (5)    22. (3)    23. (5)    24. (4)    25. (1)

WIPRO Placement Paper (Aptitude and Technical) January 2010

Aptitude 15 Questions:

The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.

The correct answer is:

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.

1. What is John's age?

(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago

Ans. (C)

2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?

(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C

Ans. (D)

3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers

(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B

Ans. (C)

4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?

(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2

Ans. (A)

5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?

(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow

Ans. (D)

6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?

(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0

Ans. (B)

7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and
finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?

(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km

Ans. (b)

8. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as

(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather

Ans. (c)

9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31

(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45

Ans. (a)

10. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word
"MANGO" would be

(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347

Ans. (d)

11. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be

(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI

Ans. (a)

12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?

(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west

Ans. (c)

13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the
truth at the same time

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14

Ans.(b)

14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can
they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75

Ans: E

15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how
many times they toll together.

a) 4

b) 10

c) 15

d) 16

Ans: d)

Technical , 20 Questions:

1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to

(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)
2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes

(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

3. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C

(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable

Ans. (a)
4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is

(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort

Ans. (a)

5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?

(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler

(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

7. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with

(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

8. Thrashing can be avoided if

(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels

Ans. (b)

10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except

(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams

Ans. (d)

11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?

(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data

Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?

(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?

(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM

Ans. (a)

14. A shift register can be used for

(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?

(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU

Ans. (a)

16. Subschema can be used to

(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)
17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of

a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none

Ans: b
18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions

[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none

Ans: b

19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words
are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.

[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8/9 [c] (k+8/9 [d] 2*(k+8/9 [e] none

Ans: a
20. Virtual memory size depends on

[a] address lines [b] data bus

[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none

Ans : a

WIPRO Placement Paper (Aptitude and Technical) 26 January 2010 | PART -2

Aptitude

Questions = 50 ; time limit = 50 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test
Section1- English, 15 questions

Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'

1. The house with all its / furniture and exotic plants / were sold for Rs. 50,000 / No error

Ans : C

2. The teacher asked the students / if everyone of them were interested in / going on an excursion / No error

Ans : B

3. a physiologist in the last century demonstrated / that puppies will die / if kept awake for more than five days / No error

Ans : B

4. It is unfortunate that / many youngsters get / addicted to gamble / No error

Ans : C

5. I have seen / that film last year / but I do not remember its story / No error

Ans: A

Directions 6-10: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

6. Plants : Coal

A) Crops : Manure B) Animals : Oil C) Cow : Milk D) Fire : Smoke

Ans : B

7. Rectangle : Cylinder

A) Square : Sphere B) Circle : Dosc C) Triangle : Cone D) Wall : Room

Ans : C

8. Expend : Replenish

A) Exhort : Encourage B) Formant : Rebellion C) Defect : Rejoin D) Encroachment : Occupy

Ans : C

9. Graphite : Lubricant

A) Movement : Friction B) Iron : Steel C) Wool : Cloth D) Diamond : Abrasive

Ans: D

10. Cube : Cuboid

A) Oval : Sphere B) Square : Cube C) Sphere : Ellipsoid D) Triangle : Cone

Ans: C

Directions 11-12 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.

11. They are building a house next door to our school

A) Next door to our school a house is being built by them

B) Next door to our school is being built a house by them

C) a house next door to our school is being built by them

D) a house is being built by them next door to our school

Ans : D

12. Have the box broken.

A) Have the broken box

B) Break the box

C) Get someone to break the box

D) They have broken the box

Ans: C

Directions 13-15 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete

13. A man who connives ........................the faults of his children is their worst enemy

A) with B) at C) of D) in

Ans: B

14. Some people revel...............gossip.

A) at B) with C) by D) in

Ans: D

15. The officer warned me.....................the office until five O'clock.

A) don't leave B) to leave C) to not leave D) not to leave

Ans: D

Aptitude 15 questions

The questions 1-5 are based on the following data

The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captians were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G. Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follows:

Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.

1. Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?

M, A, N, G, O, L, D
M, D, N, G, L, O, A
M, N, A, L, D, O, G
M, N, A, O, D, L, G
M, N, G, D, O, L, A
Ans : E

2. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue?
O spoke immediately after G.
The order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D.
O's first mate was present.
A was the fourth speaker after M.
The captains spoke in the order M, N, O, L.
Ans : D

3. Among the following statements which statement must be true?
In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
In case the seventh speaker was a first mate, the first and third speakers were captains.
Ans : A

4. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke
second
third
fourth
fifth
sixth
Ans : C

5. In case G is M's first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately
prior to T
prior to L
prior to V
after T
after V
Ans : D

6.Two series are 16,21,26.... and 17,21,25.....What is the sum of first hundred common numbers
(a) 101100
(b) 110100
(c) 101110
(d) 110101
Ans. (a)

7. There are two sections in a question paper each contain five questions. A students has to answer 6 questions.
Maximum no. of questions that can be answered from any section is 4. How many ways he can attempt the paper?

(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 200
Ans. (d)

8. a and b are two numbers selected randomly from 1,2,3.... 25 what is the probability of a and b are not equal.
(a) 1/25
(b) 24/25
(c) 13/25
(d) 2/25
Ans. (b)

9. The sum of the series 1 + 1(1+1/n) + 3(1+1/n)2 + ..... is equal to?
Ans. n2

Q15. Two circles of different radii intersects each other what is the maximum no of intersections

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans. (c)

10. How long will a train 100m long travelling at 72kmph take to overtake another train 200m long travelling at 54kmph

(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec
Ans. (b)

11. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?

(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4
Ans. (a)

12. Worker W produces n units in 5 hours. Workers V and W, workers independently but at the same time, produce n units in
2 hours. how long would it take V alone to produce n units?


a) 1 hr 26 min
b) 1 hr 53 min
c) 2 hr 30 min
d) 3 hr 30 min
e) 3 hr 20 min

Ans: e

13. 49.The sum of 7 consecutive odd numbers in terms with 27 as fourth number

Ans:189

14. It takes 30 days to fill a laboratory dish with bacteria. If the size of the bacteria doubles each day, how long did it take for the
bacteria to fill one half of dish?
Ans) D

15. If the area of a square increases by 69%, then the side of the square increased by
Ans: (B) 30%


Section3-technical ,20 questions

Predict the output or error(s) for the following:

1. main()
{
static int var = 5;
printf("%d ",var--);
if(var)
main();
}
Ans: 5 4 3 2 1



2. main()
{
int c[ ]={2.8,3.4,4,6.7,5};
int j,*p=c,*q=c;
for(j=0;j<5;j++) {
printf(" %d ",*c);
++q; }
for(j=0;j<5;j++){
printf(" %d ",*p);
++p; }
}

Ans : 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 4 6

WIPRO Placement Paper (Aptitude and Technical) 26 January 2010 PART-1

Aptitude 15 Questions:

Questions = 50 ; Time limit = 50 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test

Section1- English, 15 questions

Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'

1. Neither the plans / suits him and therefore / he decided not to / go out yesterday / No error

Ans: B

2. The Cabinet Ministers and the Prime Minister / was at the airport / to receive the foreign dignitary / No error

Ans : B

3. While proceeding on leave / he had orally committed that / he will resume after two days/ No error

Ans : C

4. The number of people / applying were so large / that the college had to / stop issuing application forms / No error

Ans: B

5. a series of lectures / of Indian philosophy / are arranged by the University / No error

Ans: C

Directions 6-10: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

6. Illiterate : Uneducated

A) Country : State B) City : Village C) Palace : Hut D) Vision : Sight

Ans ; D

7. Money : Transaction

A) Life : Death B) Water : Drink C) Ideas : Exchange D) Language : Conversation

Ans: D

8. Overlook : Aberration

A) Mitigate : Penitence B) Condone : Offence C) Error : Omission D) Conviction : Criminal

Ans: B

9. Utopia : English

A) Odyssey : Greek B) Tulsidas : Sanskrit C) Monalisa : English D) Dante : Latin

Ans: A

10. Sailor : Pirate

A) Police : Robbers B) Lion : Lamb C) Plant : Fungus D) Major : Sepoy

Ans : C

Directions 11-12 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.

11. I know him.

A) He is known by me

B) He was known to me

C) He has been known by me

D) He is known to me

Ans : D

12. The residents celebrated the Independence Day

A) The Independence Day celebrated by the residents

B) The Independence Day was celebrated by the residents

C) The Independence Day has been celebrated by the residents

D) Celebration of Independence Day was done by the residents

Ans: B

Directions 13-15 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete

13. Even if rains all day I will not be able to .........................my journey

A) put by B) put out C) put off D) put away

Ans: C

14. Help yourself....................whatever you can use without wasting

A) with B) to C) in D) for

Ans: B

15. There is an exception............................every rule.

A) on B) to C) in D) for

Ans: B

Section2-apptitude 15 questions

The questions 1-7 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions. The correct answer is

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
(E) If statements (I) and (II) are not sufficient


1. What is the volume of a cubical box in cubic centimetres?

(I) One face of the box has an area of 49 sq.cms.
(II) The longest diagonal of the box is 20 cms.

Ans. D
2. Is z positive?

(I) y+z is positive
(II) y-z is positive

Ans. E
3. Is x>y ? x, y are real numbers?

(I) 8x = 6y
(II) x = y + 4

Ans. B
4. If a ground is rectangular, what is its width?

(I) The ratio of its length to its breadth is 7:2
(II) Perimeter of the playground is 396 mts.

Ans. C
5. If the present age of my father is 39 yrs and my present age is x yrs, what is x?

(I) Next year my mother will be four times as old as i would be.
(II) My brother is 2 years older than I and my father is 4 years older than my mother.

Ans. C
6. How many brothers and sisters are there in the family of seven children?

(I) Each boy in the family has as many sisters as brothers
(II) Each of the girl in the family has twice as many brothers as sisters

Ans. D
7. x is not equal to 0, is x + y = 0?

(I) x is the reciprocal of y
(II) x is not equal to 1

Ans. A

8. Find sum of 3 + 5/(1+22) + 7/(1 + 22 + 32) + ......

Ans. 3n/(1 + n)

9. Out of 55 eggs 5 are defective. what is % of defective eggs

Ans:9/11%

10. 1/8 is divided by 's' , if 's' is increased by 2 times, what is the result.

Ans: increases two times
11. For each hour an watch is going slow by 30 seconds. Now time is

8a.m.What will be the actual time at 8p.m.

Ans: 7:54.
12. If a person walks at 4/5th of his usual spee he reaches 40min late. If he walks at his usual speed how much time does he
travels.

Ans:160min or 2hr 40min
13. In a class 80% have passed english,70% passed Hindi 10% did not passed either. If 144 students passed both. What is
the total strength of the class.

Ans: 240.

14. Find the least number when divided by 7 gives the reminder 6, when divided by 6 gives reminder 5, when divided by 5
gives reminder 4 and so on....

Ans: 419
15. If a man stands in front of sun what is the first letter of the direction which is left to him:

Ans: North(N)

Section3 Technical , 20 Questions:

1. After execution of CMP, a instruction in Intel 8085 microprocessor

(a) ZF is set and CY is reset.

(b) ZF is set CY is unchanged

(c) ZF is reset, CY is set

(d) ZF is reset , CY is unchanged .

Ans. A
2. Convert the infix to postfix for A-(B+C)*(D/E)

Ans. ABC+DE/*-
3. Picard's method uses _______?

Ans. Successive Differentiation.

Predict the output or error(s) for the following:

4. void main()
{
int const * p=5;
printf("%d",++(*p));
}
Ans: Compiler error: Cannot modify a constant value.

5. main()
{
char s[ ]="man";
int i;
for(i=0;s[ i ];i++)
printf("\n%c%c%c%c",s[ i ],*(s+i),*(i+s),i[s]);
}
Ans: mmmm
aaaa
nnnn

6. Identify the recording mode, by which you can record the non-standard object in QTP

A) Standard recording B) Analog recording

C) Low level recording D) None

Ans: B

7. By default, how many no of tables would be there in a script?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

Ans: B

8. The file extension of Shared object repository file is

A .MTR B. .TSR C. .QRS D. None

Ans: B

9. To invoke the function which does not return any value, we can use

a. call function name b. function name

c. Both A & B d. None

Ans: A

10. How many bits are needed within a machine code instruction to select a single register in a machine with 16 general registers?


a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Ans: C

11. which key in any windows screen is used to invoke file menu

Ans :alt+f

12. Object which is used for calling the win32 api functions in QTP, we use

A extern B. description C. environment D. None


Ans: A

13. What is the result of adding the binary numbers 01000001 and 11111111 on an 8 bit machine?


A. 11111111 B. 00000000 C. 01111111 D. Overflow

Ans: D

14. Which of the following does POP stand for?


A. Post Office Protocol B. Peer over peer

C. Private Office Protocol D. Post Optical Protocol

Ans: A

15. Which of the following stages of compilation produces a syntax tree?
A. Parsing B. Code generation

C. Lexical analysis D. Semantic analysis

Ans: A

16. Which of the following is not contained in a system description?
A. Internal data flows B. Flows leaving and entering the system

C. Relationship between external entities D. Internal components or processes

Ans: C

17. What is the result of adding the binary numbers 01000011 and 10010000 on an 8 bit machine?
A. 11010011 B. 11110011 C. 11001011 D. 11010101

Ans: A

18. How is the decimal value for 30 represented in binary?
A. 00001111 B. 00011010 C. 00011110 D. 00011111

Ans: C

19. A memory chip has 8 data lines and 9 address lines. How many bytes can be stored on it?
A. 511 B. 512 C. 500 D. 256

Ans: B

20. Which of the following devices requires the highest input data transferrate?
A. mouse B. Keyboard C. Floppy disk D. CD

Ans: D
 

WIPRO Placement Paper (Aptitude and Technical) January 2010

Aptitude 15 Questions:

The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.

The correct answer is:

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.

1. What is John's age?

(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago

Ans. (C)

2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?

(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C

Ans. (D)

3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers

(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B

Ans. (C)

4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?

(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2

Ans. (A)

5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?

(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow

Ans. (D)

6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?

(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0

Ans. (B)

7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and
finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?

(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km

Ans. (b)

8. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as

(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather

Ans. (c)

9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31

(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45

Ans. (a)

10. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word
"MANGO" would be

(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347

Ans. (d)

11. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be

(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI

Ans. (a)

12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?

(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west

Ans. (c)

13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the
truth at the same time

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14

Ans.(b)

14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can
they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75

Ans: E

15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how
many times they toll together.

a) 4

b) 10

c) 15

d) 16

Ans: d)

Technical , 20 Questions:

1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to

(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)
2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes

(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

3. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C

(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable

Ans. (a)
4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is

(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort

Ans. (a)

5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?

(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler

(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

7. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with

(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

8. Thrashing can be avoided if

(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels

Ans. (b)

10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except

(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams

Ans. (d)

11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?

(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data

Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?

(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?

(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM

Ans. (a)

14. A shift register can be used for

(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?

(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU

Ans. (a)

16. Subschema can be used to

(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)
17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of

a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none

Ans: b
18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions

[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none

Ans: b

19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words
are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.

[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8/9 [c] (k+8/9 [d] 2*(k+8/9 [e] none

Ans: a
20. Virtual memory size depends on

[a] address lines [b] data bus

[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none

Ans : a

WIPRO Placement Paper (Aptitude and Technical) 27 January 2010

Questions = 50 ; time limit = 50 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test
Section1- English, 15 questions

Directions 1-5 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete

1. While facts are ________ and data hard to come by, even scientists occasionally throw side the professional pretense of
______ and tear into each other with shameless appeals to authority and arguments that shameless appeals to authority and
arguments that are unabashedly ad hominid.

a. elusive...objectivity
b. establish...courtesy
c. demonstrate .. neutrality
d. ineluctable...cooperation
ANS: (A)

2. While the disease is in ______ state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by_____ .

a. a dormant ..postulate
b. a critical...examination
c. an acute ...analysis
d. a latent...observation
ANS: (d)

3. The storehouse was infested.........................rats.

A) by B) of C) with D) in

Ans: C

4. Please distribute these sweets........................the children

A) in B) between C) amid D) among

Ans: D

5. This custom seems to have originated .....................and East European country

A) in B) from C) by D) with

Ans: A

Directions 6-10: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

6. OFFHAND : PREMEDITATION : :

a. upright : integrity b. aboveboard : guile c. cutthroat : competition d. backward : direction
ANS: (b)

7. POLTERGEIST : APPARATION::

a. dwarf : stature b. witch : familiar c. ogre : monster d. sorcerer : spell
ANS: (c)

8.AVER : AFFIRMATION : :

a. proclaim: objection b. denounce : defiance c. refuse : distress d. demur : protest
ANS. (d)

9. Duralumin : Aircraft

A) Brass : Alloy B) Stone : Sculptor C) Iron : Steel D) Bronze : Statue

Ans: D

10. Cool : Frigid

A) Livid :Lurid B) Pool : Placid C) Tepid : Torried D) Lack : Abundant

Ans : C

Direction 11-13 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'

11. If I was you / I would have / terminated his services then and there / No error

A B C D

Ans : A

12. as soon as I will reach Bombay / I will send / you the books / you have asked for / No error

A B C D E

Ans: A

13. Our conception of / what should a science of mental life be / has changed considerably since James' time / No error
A B C D

Ans : B

Directions 14-15 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.

14. Do you imitate others ?

A) Are others imitated by you ?

B) Are others being imitated by you ?

C) Were others being imitated by you ?

D) Have others been imitated by you ?

Ans : A

15. I saw him conducting the rehearsal.

A) He was seen conducting the rehearsal

B) I saw the rehearsal to be conducted by him

C) He was seen by me to conduct the rehearsal

D) I saw the rehearsal being conducted by him

Ans : D

SET -2

The questions 1-2 are based on the following data

6 people A,B,C,D,E and F sit around a table for dinner. Since A does not like C, he doesn't sit either opposite or
beside C.B and F always like to sit opposite each other.

1. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbours of B?

(a) D and C
(b) E and C
(c) D and E
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans. (c)

2. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?

(a) E and B
(b) D and A
(c) D and B
(d) either (a) or (c)

Ans.(d)

3. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _

(a) B, F
(b) Y, C
(c) G, I
(d) K, O

Ans.(b)

4. If the letters of the word "rachit" are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written out as in a dictionary,
what is the rank of the word "rachit".

(a) 485
(b) 480
(c) 478
(d) 481

Ans. (d)

5. Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is

(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 30%

Ans. (c)

6. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days. In how many days
will A alone finish the job

(a) 48
(b) 34 2/7
(c) 44
(d) 45

Ans. (a)

7. How long will a train 100m long travelling at 72kmph take to overtake another train 200m long travelling at 54kmph ?

(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec

Ans. (b)

8. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?

(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4

Ans. (a)



9. The total population of a village is 5000. The number of males and females increases by 10% and 15% respectively
and consequently the population of the village becomes 5600. what was the number of males in the village ?

A) 2000 B) 2500 C) 3000 D) 4000

Ans : C

10. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg
of fresh fruits ?

A) 32 kg B) 40 kg C) 52 kg D) 80 kg

Ans : B

11. If "segment" is coded as rffndou, then "ritual" is coded as

(a) shutbm
(b) qjutbk
(c) qhutbk
(d) qhubtk

Ans. (c)

12. If "football" is "cricket" ,"cricket" is "basketball" ,"basketball" is "volleyball","volleyball" is "khokho" and "khokho" is
cricket, which is not a ball game?

(a) cricket
(b) football
(c) khokho
(d) basketball

Ans. (a)

13. Which of the following is a recursive set of production

(a) S --> a|A, A --> S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these

Ans. (c)
14. A sum 's' is divided into 4 parts. second person gets Rs 10 more than first.3rd person is Rs 10 more than second,
4th is 10 more than 3rd.how much amount do 1st person get.

Ans: (s-60)/4
15. One ship goes along the stream direction 28 km and in opposite direction 13 km in 5 hrs for each direction. What is the
velocity of stream?

Ans: 1.5 kmph

Section3-technical ,20 questions

1. What sorting algos have their best and worst case times equal ?

Ans. O(nlogn) for mergesort and heap sort

2. What page replacement algorithm has minimum number of page faults ?

Ans. Optimality algorithm

3. What is the use of virtual base class in c++

Ans. Multiple lines between derived classes.

4. Assignment operator targets to _____

Ans. l-value
5. A byte addressable computer has memory capacity of 2 power m Kbytes and can perform 2 power n operations an
instruction involving three operands and one operator needs maximum of___________ bits

Ans. 3m + n
6. In round robin scheduling, if time quantum is too large then it degenerates to

Ans. FCFS
7. What data structures you should use for dictionary searching and it should be capable of doing spell check also ?

Ans: Hashing

8. What is the value of 121 base 4 + 84 base 16 ?

Ans : 2130
9. When the fn. is called where the return address is stored?

Ans. stack
10. C program code

int zap (int n)

{

if (n<=1)then zap=1;

else zap=zap(n-3)+zap(n-1);

}

then the call zap(6) gives the values of zap

[a] 8 9 [c] 6 [d] 12 [e] 15

Ans: b

11. Virtual memory size depends on

[a] address lines [b] data bus

[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none

Ans : a
12. Critical section is

Ans: statements which are accessing shared resources

13. In which layer ROUTING is performed ?
Ans. Network Layer

14. What is the output of the following code snippet

main()

{

printf(5+”Fascimile”);

}

Ans. mile
15. Which one has no L-Value

A a[i] B. i C. 2 D. *(a+i)

Ans . C
16. Which is true for binary search ?

A Traversal scheme B. Greedy algorithm

C. Divide and conquer algorithm D. none of these

Ans. C

17. What is the protocol used for getting the physical address by supplying IP address of a node ?

A. ARP B. RARP C. BOOTP D. DHCP

Ans. A

18. Which is not an OS?

a) Win 3.1 b) Win 95

c) Win 98 d) Win 2000

Ans. a

19. Tcp/ip is

a) connectionless b) connection oriented c) both a & b d) none

Ans: b
20. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case and a worst time algorithm in worst case is

(a) Quick Sort (b) Heap Sort (c) Merge Sort (d) Insert Sort

Ans. (a)
 

Wipro Infotech Fresher Job Interview Placement Paper Pattern (Aptitude, Essay, Technical & Interview) 2010

No. of rounds: 4
1: Aptitude test
2: Essay writing
3: Technical Interview
4: HR interview

The above pattern is the latest followed by Wipro Recruitement Team.The Aptitute Test is conducted online on the computer so there are very less chances of any error creeping in. The test was conducted in 4 slots with around 70 students in one slot. The interface was clean and smooth with excellent work from the coordinators in carrying out the test.

1: Aptitude test: It had 3 sections namely verbal ability, quantitative apti, technical knowledge.
Verbal: 15 Questions
Quantitative: 15 Question
Technical: 20 Questions
Test Duration: 60min

Verbal had simple english ques, passage based ques, synonyms, antonyms, phrases, fill in the blanks etc.Completed this section in around 15 minutes since the questions were very very simple.  Quantitative had questions from time speed distance, logical thinking, blood relationship etc.Can't remember more....However this section was also easy and completed it in around 15-20 minutes. Just brush up your concepts and general formulae and you will be fine with it.

Technical was the toughest section with questions on c, c++ , java, Operating System, and unix / linux ques.Some questions from Unix were way over the top but the trick is to clear the cutoff which lies around 10-12 marks in technical.You can easily score that much if you can do c, c++, java and maybe OS.

2: Essay writing:
Duration: 10min

They consider only text written on front side of the A4 paper.This seems to be a mere formality to check your arrangement of ideas and there representation.My topic was "College Politics"

3: Technical Interview: The technical interview went for around 20-25 minutes with questions ranging from your project, training informaion, your favourite subject. The question were majorly easy and simple to answer instead of the difficult progrmas and in depth question that are asked in some of the interviews

The question that they asked apart from technical ones were- are you ready to relocate anywhere in India.Can you fill the bond that we were asked to fill once we get placed in Wipro.What are your career aspirations. Show them your confidence....

4: HR INTERVIEW: The final stage of wipro placement drive. My interview began at 11:15pm. Although i was sleeping at that time but try to maintain your energy...keep a smile on your face :)

My interview was taken by the Head who came with her team from bangalore.She was nice and friendly.She asked me to tell something about myself which is not in my CV.Then she asked me the most challenging thing i had ever done in my life followed by why should we hire you?

At the end she asked me if i had any questions.

Just be yourself, be confident, CONFIDENCE is the key...Dont forget to remember the almighty and on your day nobody can stop you from achieving your aspirations.. All the best for your placement...... :)